Vector-borne diseases quiz for MD students

How to cite this article:
Borker SA. Vector-borne diseases quiz for MD students. Ann Trop Med Public Health 2017;10:267-72

 

How to cite this URL:
Borker SA. Vector-borne diseases quiz for MD students. Ann Trop Med Public Health [serial online] 2017 [cited 2017 Jul 15];10:267-72. Available from: https://www.atmph.org/text.asp?2017/10/1/267/205562

Sir,

A quiz on vector-borne diseases was conducted by the author as an event to observe World Health Day at Karnataka, the detailed instructions are attached below:

It consisted of five rounds:

Q 1 To 10: Multiple-Choice Questions

No marks for unattempted answers.

Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). You have to choose the correct response.

Each question carrying one (1) mark. No Negative marking.

  • No team will be eliminated at the end of this round.
Q 11 to 20: Matching Item

No marks for unattempted answers.

This consists of two lists of statements, terms or symbols and you have to match list 1 with the item in list 2.

Each question carrying one (1) mark. No Negative marking.

  • No team will be eliminated at the end of this round.
Q 21 to 30: Fill in the Blanks

No marks for unattempted answers.

If there are two fill in the blanks in the question asked then two marks for each correct complete answer, minus one for complete wrong answer. If one correct and one wrong then total marks scored will be ½ (1- ½ = ½).

If there is one blank in the question, then two marks for correct answer and minus one for wrong answer.

  • 1 team with lowest score will be eliminated at the end of this round. If there is a tie between the last two scores the team with highest negative marking will be eliminated.
Q 31 to 40: Assertion and Reason

No marks for unattempted answers.

Given below consists of the two paired statements. Statement A (Assertion) and R (Reason). Select appropriate answer using the code given below as follows:

  1. Both A (Assertion) and R (Reason) are true and R (Reason) is the correct explanation of A (Assertion).
  2. Both A (Assertion) and R (Reason) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. A (Assertion) is true, but R (Reason) is false.
  4. A (Assertion) is false, but R (Reason) is true.

Each question carrying one (1) mark. (½) Negative mark for wrong answer.

  • Highest scoring 4 team will be going to the next round. If marks are equal, then the team with highest negative markings will be eliminated.

 

Q 41 to 50: Rapid Fire Round -10 Questions. True Or False.

No marks for unattempted answers. Each question carrying 2 marks. Minus one for wrong answer.

Bonus marks: at least five answers should be correct for being eligible for bonus marks.

Teams answering all 10 questions within 6 minutes will be given 4 bonus points.

Teams answering all 10 questions within 8 minutes will be given 2 bonus points.

Teams answering all 10 questions after 8 minutes will be given 0 bonus points.

First two teams will be given prizes.

First Round: Single Best Answer Out of 4 Choices

Instructions:

  1. Circle the most appropriate answer.
  2. One mark for each correct answer.
  3. No Negative marks.
  4. No Elimination at the end of this round.

 

  1. National Anti Malaria Program was renamed as National Vector Borne Diseases Control Program in the year
    1. 1977
    2. 1997
    3. 2002
    4. 2005

    Answer-b

  2. The Plasmodium Species not found in India is
    1. Vivax
    2. Falciparum
    3. Malaria
    4. Ovale

    Answer-d

  3. Man is a dead end host in
    1. Malaria
    2. Kala azar
    3. Japanese encephalitis
    4. Chickungunia

    Answer-c

  4. The Animal that is considered as “amplifier host” of the virus, in Japanese encephaliti is
    1. Man
    2. Cattle
    3. Horse
    4. Pig

    Answer-d

  5. Man is a definitive host and mosquito an intermediate host in
    1. Malaria
    2. Filiariasis
    3. Japanese encephalitis
    4. Dengue

    Answer-b

  6. Sodium Antimony Stibogluconate is drug of choice in
    1. Dengue
    2. Kala azar
    3. Filiariasis
    4. Japanese encephalitis

    Answer-b

  7. Desert coolers provide an excellent substrate for breeding of which mosquito
    1. Aedes
    2. Banopheles
    3. Culex
    4. Mansonia

    Answer-a

  8. To distinguish Chikungunya from dengue fever, During an outbreak following test is used
    1. IgM capture ELISA
    2. Hemagglutination Inhibition test
    3. Hemagglutination Neutralization Test
    4. Nucleic acid detection by PCR

    Answer-a

  9. Epidemiological features for J.E. include all of the following except
    1. Vectors rest indoors
    2. Man does not play a role in JE transmission.
    3. Cattle do not circulate virus
    4. Epidemics have been reported in Karnataka

    Answer-a

  10. According to National Malaria policy 2013, pregnant women in first trimester having uncomplicated Falciparum malaria have to be treated with
    1. Arsenate
    2. Quinine
    3. Chloroquine
    4. ACT

    Answer-a

 

Second Round: Fill in the Blanks

Instructions:

  1. One mark for each correct answer.
  2. No Negative marks.
  3. No elimination at the end of this round.

 

  1. Define Vector-borne Diseases as per NVDCP:

Diseases that are transmitted to humans or animals by an insect such as mosquito or by another arthropod which sucks blood.

  1. Nearly ———percent of world population is infected with vector-borne diseases 50%
  2. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis against malaria for short-term travelers (<6 weeks) travelling from non malarious to malarious areas is —–Doxycycline
  3. On hematological examination———and ———are striking features of L. donovani infection

Progressive leukoplakia and severe anemia

  1. ——-and—–are the drugs used for mass drug administration in Filariasis

DEC and Albendazole

  1. For diagnosis of J.E. blood specimen should be collected within —- days after onset of illness for isolation of virus and at least —- days after onset of illness for detection of IgM antibodies

4 and 5 days

  1. The most efficient fish for curtailment of larvae menace (eats maximum number of larvae / hour) is

Gambusia Affinis

  1. After JE vaccination, immunity develops in_______days

30 days

  1. Maximum density of microfilaria in blood is found between___am/pm to__am/pm

10 pm and 2 am

  1. Active case detection (ACD) in Malaria implies that the M.P.W. would visit all houses within the subcenter area once in——–days and look for fever cases which occurred between the current and previous visit

15 days every fortnightly

Best 4 Teams will go for the third round

Third Round: Assertion and Reasoning type: 10 questions

Instructions

(2 marks for correct answer and-1 mark for incorrect answer.) one minute for each question

1st Question starts from 1st team

Teams can pass the turn if they do not know the answer.

Next team will get the chance

Given below are paired statements:

Statement A = (Assertion),Statement R = (Reason).

Select appropriate answer using the code given below.

  1. Both A (Assertion) and R (Reason) are true and R (Reason) is the correct explanation of A (Assertion).
  2. Both A (Assertion) and R (Reason) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. A (Assertion) is true, but R (Reason) is false.
  4. A (Assertion) is false, but R (Reason) is true.

 

  1. Assertion: There are currently no licensed malaria vaccines.Reason: Over 20 vaccine projects are in clinical trials.Answer-a

    Assertion: On World Malaria Day 2013, WHO launched a new initiative called T3: Test. Treat. Track.

    Reason: T3 is an initiative urging malaria-endemic countries, donors, and the global malaria community to scale up diagnostic testing, treatment, and tracking. (surveillance for malaria)

    Answer-a

    Assertion: WHO strongly recommends routine yellow fever vaccination for children in areas at risk for the disease.

    Reason: Vaccination is the single most important measure for preventing yellow fever.

    Answer-a

    Assertion: The number of yellow fever cases worldwide has increased over the past 2 decades.

    Reason: There is (a) declining population immunity to infection, (b) deforestation, (c) urbanization, (d) population movements, and (e) climate change.

    Answer-d

    Assertion: A newly accessible vaccine against Japanese Encephalitis (manufactured in China) is going to make the protection of more children in developing countries easier.

    Reason: The vaccine, only needs to be given in one dose, it can be used for infants, and it is less expensive than other Japanese Eçncephalitis vaccines.

    Answer-a

    Assertion: The Aedes aegypti mosquito is the primary vector of dengue.

    Reason: After virus incubation for 10-20 days, an infected mosquito is capable of transmitting the virus to others.

    Answer-b

    Assertion: Serological tests, such as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA), may confirm the presence of IgM and IgG anti-Chikungunya antibodies.

    Reason: IgM antibody levels are highest, three to five weeks after the onset of illness and persist for about 2 months.

    Answer-a

    Assertion: Until recently, the only method of diagnosis for Lymphatic Filariasis was through examination of thick smears of 20–60 μl of fingerprick blood for microfilaria.

    Reason: A more efficient, but cumbersome, method of diagnosis at the community level is filtration of 1 ml of intravenous blood and examination of the filtrate for microfilaria.

    Answer-a

    Assertion: The control of breeding sites of Culex mosquitoes is relatively easy due to the large number and variety of breeding sites.

    Reason: Guppy and Gambusia fish should be put in unused wells and other water bodies.

    Answer-d

    Assertion: It is advisable not to exercise during an acute attack of infection in Lymphatic Filariasis.

    Reason: An acute attack of infection is painful

    Answer-a

Best three teams will go for the next round

Fourth Round: Multiple Correct Answers

Instructions

(2 marks for correct answer and -1 mark for incorrect answer.)

One minute for each question

1st Question starts from 1st team

Teams can pass the turn if they do not know the answer.

Next team will get the chance

  1. Following statements are true about J.E.
    1. Man to man transmission is not reported
    2. Culicine mosquito is zoophilic
    3. Mortality is 80-90%
    4. Clinical cases represent tip of the iceberg
    1. A, B, and C are true
    2. B, C, and D are true
    3. A, B, and D are true
    4. A, C, and D are true

    Answer-c

  2. Following things are true about yellow fever
    1. Yellow fever is an acute viral hemorrhagic disease.
    2. Up to 50% of severely affected persons without treatment will die from yellow fever.
    3. The virus is endemic in tropical areas of Africa and Latin America, with a combined population of over 900 million people.
    4. The number of yellow fever cases has decreased over the past 2 decades
    1. A, B, and C are true
    2. B, C, and D are true
    3. A, B, and D are true
    4. A, C, and D are true

    Answer-a

  3. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Malaria
      1. According to the WHO estimates, there were about 207 million cases of malaria in 2012 and an estimated 627 000 deaths
      2. Most deaths occur among adults living in Africa
      3. In recent years, some human cases of malaria have also occurred with Plasmodium knowlesi
    1. Plasmodium falciparum is the most deadly species.
    1. A, B, and C are correct
    2. B, C, and D are correct
    3. A, B, and D are correct
    4. A, C, and D are correct

    Answer-b

  4. Following statements regarding treatment of malaria are true:
    1. Presumptive chloroquine treatment is recommended for suspected malaria cases.
    2. Primaquine is contra indicated in pregnant woman.
    3. P. vivax cases should be treated with chloroquine for 3 days and Primaquine for 14 days.
    4. Pregnant women with uncomplicated P. falciparum infection in 1st trimester are treated with ACT.
    1. A and B are correct
    2. B and C are correct
    3. C and D are correct
    4. A and D are correct

    Answer-b

  5. Which of the guidelines for treatment of severe malaria cases is true
    1. Artesunate: 2.4 mg/kg body weight IV or IM given on admission (time = 0 h); then at 12 h and 24 h and then once a da.or
    2. Artemether: 3.2 mg/kg body weight IM given on admission and then 1.6 mg/kg body weight per day.or
    3. Arteether: 150 mg IM daily for 3 days in adults only (not recommended for children). or
    4. Quinine: 40 mg/kg body weight on admission (IV infusion or divided IM injection) followed by maintenance dose of 20 mg/kg body weight 8 hourly.
    1. A, B, and C are true
    2. B, C, and D are true
    3. A, B, and D are true
    4. A, C, and D are true

    Answer-a

  6. Among the anopheline species the exophilic resting behavior is seen in
    1. Anopheles culicifacies
    2. Anopheles fluviatalis
    3. Anopheles minimus
    4. Anopheles stephensi
    1. A and B are correct
    2. B and C are correct
    3. C and D are correct
    4. A and D are correct

    Answer-b

  7. Following statements regarding Leishmaniasis are true:
    1. Diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis produces disseminated and chronic skin lesions resembling those of lepromatous leprosy.
    2. Kala azar is characterized by high fever, weight loss, swelling of the spleen and liver, and anemia
    3. Single-dose liposomal amphotericin B is shown to be effective, cheap, usable at the peripheral level for treatment of visceral leishmaniasis
    4. In adults weighing < 25 kg, Miltefosine is used for treatment of kala azar in endemic areas at a dosage of 50 mg twice a day for 28 days
    1. A, B, and C are true
    2. B, C, and D are true
    3. A, B, and D are true
    4. A, C, and D are true

    Answer-a

  8. Following statements regarding Aedes aegypti mosquito are true:
    1. Aedes aegypti mosquito generally bites during day time.
    2. For Aedes mosquito control 0.1% pyrethrum extract “ready-to-spray” formulation is used for indoor spraying.
    3. One liter of 0.1% pyrethrum extract “ready-to-spray” formulation is needed to cover 100 cubic meters of indoor space.
    4. Pyrethrum is is nontoxic to humans and other non-target organisms at the recommended dose.
    1. A, B, and C are true
    2. B, C, and D are true
    3. A, B, and D are true
    4. A, C, and D are true

    Answer-c

  9. Following facts about Chikungunya are true:
    1. Chikungunya virus is classified in the family Togaviridae and genus Alphavirus.
    2. Incubation period ranges from 10 to 15 days.
    3. Chikungunya usually starts suddenly with fever, chills, headache, nausea, vomiting, joint pain, and rash.
    4. Laboratory confirmation of diagnosis is important especially in areas where dengue is present.
    1. A, B, and C are true
    2. B, C, and D are true
    3. A, B, and D are true
    4. A, C, and D are true

    Answer-d

    1. Minimum volume of liquid insecticide formulation is applied per unit area.
    2. Presently technical malathion is the insecticide used for this purpose.
    3. Since no diluent is used, the technique is more cost-effective than thermal fogging.
    4. High fire hazard and relatively less environment-friendly.Following facts about ultra-low volume fogging are true:
    1. A, B, and C are true
    2. B, C, and D are true
    3. A, B, and D are true
    4. A, C, and D are true

    Answer-a

Best two teams will qualify for the rapid fire round

Fifth Round: (Rapid Fire) State whether True or False:

Instructions

(1 mark for correct answer and -1 mark for incorrect answer.)

Maximum time 10 minutes

If two or more teams get equal marks, Team answering fast will be the winner.

  1. In Filariasis, apparently healthy persons transmit the infection to others, while the persons with severe form of the disease no longer transmit the infection. (T)
  2. One of the factors responsible for increased proportion of P. falciparum cases relative to P. vivax is the continued treatment of resistant P. falciparum cases with chloroquine (T)
  3. NVBDCP supplies RDT kits for detection of P. falciparum at locations where microscopy results are not obtainable within 48 hours of sample collection. (F) (24 hour)
  4. Artemisinin derivatives are administered as monotherapy for uncomplicated malaria. (F )
  5. If RDT for P. falciparum is used, negative cases showing signs and symptoms of malaria without any other obvious cause for fever should be treated with chloroquine in full therapeutic dose of 25 mg/kg body weight over three days. (T)
  6. A suspected case of kala azar in endemic areas is: Any person with fever for > 10 days with splenomegaly not responding to antimalarial and antibiotics. (F) (15)
  7. Any woman of child-bearing age who is on miltefosine therapy should use contraceptives during the duration of therapy and till 2 years thereafter (F) (2M)
  8. In India, Phlebotomos argentipes is the only species that transmits kala azar to man. (T)
  9. The drug of choice for treatment of uncomplicated P. falciparum infection in 2nd trimester of pregnancy is ACT (T)
  10. The ACT recommended in the National Program of India is: Artesunate + Mefloquine combination. (F) Artesunate and Sulfadoxine + pyrimethamine

There were in total 12 teams that participated in this quiz competition. one team each were declared as winners and runners up respectively.


Source of Support: None, Conflict of Interest: None

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DOI: 10.4103/1755-6783.205562

Paul Mies has now been involved with test reports and comparing products for a decade. He is a highly sought-after specialist in these areas as well as in general health and nutrition advice. With this expertise and the team behind atmph.org, they test, compare and report on all sought-after products on the Internet around the topics of health, slimming, beauty and more. The results are ultimately summarized and disclosed to readers.

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